In response to my contention that the law Yahweh provided was ludicrously inadequate and was in fact highly immoral, Anonymous responded thus:
"God provides laws regulating everything when no laws existed, do you get the point? No laws were there which could say that one action was better than another. Making laws established parity for the behavior of the people he was going to send many more prophets to. This is an example of God teaching men proper behavior piece by piece, not suggesting slavery is not objectively immoral, but that humanity had to be brought to a point where they could accept and live with the knowledge that it was so."
This statement is mind bogglingly ignorant and counterfactual on almost every single level.
1. "God provides laws regulating everything when no laws existed, do you get the point?" Apparently I don't get the point... As a threshold matter, let's dispense with the ludicrous contention that no laws existed. The Mosaic Law was developed somewhere between 700 and 800 BCE. In contrast, the Code of Ur-Nammu was codified somewhere around 2050 BCE, the Laws of Eshunna somewhere around 1930 BCE, Codex of Lipit Ishtar somewhere around 1870 BCE, the Code of Hammurabi somewhere around 1750 BCE. This does not even include other codes of laws extant in the Far East. In other words, far from the Mosaic Law simply coming into being 'when no laws existed,' the Mosaic Law was actually merely a restatement of codified legal codes that had been in existence throughout the Middle East for over a thousand years. Indeed, much of Mosaic Law was copied directly from the Code of Hammurabi.